Question:
With
19HCPs, should South bid 2NT on their second bid so that their partner knows
they have a large hand or is 2NT? What would happen if there was
interference from either East or West? Would 2NT still be the bid?
Vic:
Yes. Given that South opted to bid no trump on their second call, the proper bid would have been 2NT (not 1NT).
Meaning of 1NT: I do not have 4 hearts (true). I do not have 4 spades (not true). I have a balanced hand (true). My balanced hand was too weak to open 1NT (less than 15 points - not true).
Meaning of 2NT: I do not have 4 hearts (true). I do not have 4 spades (not true). I have a balanced hand (true). My balanced hand was too strong to open 1NT & too weak to open 2NT (18-19 points - true).
Meaning of 2H (above): I have a 6-card heart suit. Hearing that I would expect the 3rd call by North to be 4H (not 2NT).
Summary: Quite a collection of flawed bids.
By the Way: If I was holding the South hand, my second call would have been 2S. Playing with one of my regular partners, I expect that would have led to a 4H final contract. But that story is too complicated to get into.
Play of Hand Analysis:
Good defense against 4H can take three diamond tricks before declarer ever
gets the lead. Looks to me like a flawless defensive effort subsequent to
that will set 4H by one trick. But how often is the defense flawless?
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