Question:
Should S double instead of bidding 3C?
Rich:
Question:
Should S explore NT after N has rebid C?
Mark:
This is a case where no one has done anything wrong, but the
poor result is predictable. The 1 club opening is clearly right. The
1 diamond response is not wrong, but a 1NT response on this hand is more
practical and enterprising. There are 7 very nice HCP and a balanced hand, with
an honor card in spades and 1.5 honors in hearts. It is a perfectly descriptive
bid, whereas 1 diamond is ambiguous. It could be unbalanced, and it could be
very weak or very strong. When the chance exists to make a descriptive bid, one
that narrowly describes your hand, that is always recommended. After a 1NT bid
by South, North has an easy decision to bid 3NT. There's no guarantee that 3NT
can be made or is even likely to be made, but luck has it that it can't be
beaten if played correctly, and luck tends to favor enterprising bidders.
Why is it easy for N to raise 1NT to 3? You have a well above minimum opening
bid. More importantly, you have 7 "sure" tricks and a possible 8th in
the Q of spades. The spade Q is, indeed worth an extra trick, even with the K
offsides, because of South's J. Wouldn't it be enough for N to bid 2NT if S
bids 1NT? NO! The powerful trick taking club suit makes 3NT a good bet opposite
any ordinary 1NT bid. South should pass if North bids 2NT over 1NT. South has a
solid 1NT bid in the first round, but no extras. If N bids 2NT it is asking S
for extras, and those aren't there. The extras are in the N hand. N is the
decider, so don't pass the buck.
Now for South's original (not wrong) 1 diamond
response. It puts North in a difficult position. 3 clubs, rather than 2 clubs
is the best bid, but it takes up room and isn't fully descriptive. South would
have a difficult choice about what to bid next. 3NT is the best of some
imperfect choices, so you might land on your feet after all. The 2 clubs chosen
by N is very conservative and might work out well on some other hand. However,
it conveys a minimum opening and is neither forcing nor encouraging.
In summary, both partners bid understandably but much
too cautiously, with the usual result, a low board compared to some or
most other pairs.
Question:
Should N have bid 2NT over West’s overcall of 1S to indicate
stopper in S and opening count?
Glenna:
North
has an opening hand and 2 ♠️ stoppers so his bid is 3NT.
We bid 1 NT with 6-10, 2NT with 11-12 and 3 NT with 13+ points.
Question:
N/S have a fit in Clubs should they advance the bid in clubs
or go to NT?
Vic:
Answer: It depends. On
what? On whether NS are able to rate the quality of their opponents.
Question:
N/S have a good fit in diamonds but give up the bid to E/W
at 3C. Should they have gone higher? If so, where?
At the first turn, South had a choice of 2 good calls, one
being the 1D bid that was made and the other a takeout double. I tend to like
the 1 D bid. North was too cautious not to raise diamonds immediately, rather
than pass and then bid 2 D, seemingly reluctantly. After E repeated clubs
again, bidding 3, S had enough to bid 3 diamonds and N did as well, so neither
partner should pass 3 clubs. It's more of a clear choice for N. If N shows
some immediate enthusiasm for diamonds, they can reach 5 diamonds, that
will very likely be made. Note that the spade 10 happens to fall, creating
a heart discard from the N hand and therefore no heart loser.
E-W can afford to compete to 4 clubs, which can be
made. E-W can make 4 clubs, but shouldn't be allowed to play there. If they
reach 5 clubs, they should be doubled, down at least 200 at the
vulnerability.
In summary, NS should bid more with a huge fit in
diamonds, especially N.
Question:
How could N/S indicate the good fit in clubs?
Vic:
The declaring side (NS)
missed getting to a makeable game in NT. Turns out they actually deserve two
overtricks (almost slam). One could argue shared responsibility, but in fact
Responder (North) was the major culprit.
Question: Should W support NT ?
Vic:
West did support NT. They
supported it by Passing.
Should South’s bid of 1S in response to North’s
opening bid be considered forcing?
Mark:
Yes, it is forcing since S is not a passed hand. South
could potentially have 25 points and have a hand that makes the combined
partnership holding sufficient to make 7 NT.
Each time the bidding progresses, you have more
information. You then have to ask yourself what is the range of partner's
points, based on the bidding so far. You then add your points to both ends and
the middle of partner's range. If it's over 25, there is a good likelihood that
game can be made in NT or a major suit where there are a combined 8
cards or more.If it's at least 33, slam is likely. If it's 20 to 24
potential total for both hands of the partnership, a part score is advisable.
In this case, North should bid 1NT or 2 clubs to show
a minimum opening bid, a pretty good description, leaving it up to South to
decide what the combined holding indicates. South, with an opening bid strength
hand facing an opening bid, should drive to game, but should be mindful of the
danger of a wide- open diamond suit. The simplest bid for south is 3 spades.
Experts might try 2 hearts when it is forcing, both partners are aware it
doesn't promise a 4 card suit and that it is forcing and expressing doubt about
diamonds. It happens that 4 spades, 4 hearts and 5 clubs are all easily
makeable, while 3NT is a disaster. Some pairs will bid 3NT and 1 spade making 4
will be better than a minus score so it will not be a total flop, though I
expect it to fetch a below average score.
Question: Should E have opened this “undisciplined” weak 2H bid?
Glenna:
I agree to opening this hand. It’s the weakest
hand that qualifies because the suit is weak. But look at how effective it
was—north should bid 3 ♣️ and didn’t so EW won the
board.
E bids a T/O double, should W have bid something?
Rich:
A good case can be made for West to bid 1 spade over South’s
1 NT. The ten of S and the fifth S are pluses opposite a partner who made a
T.O. Dbl of hearts, thus strongly inviting spades. In my opinion 1NT by E is
better than double (16 hcp , flat distribution and H doubly stopped ). Over
East’s 1NT W should compete to 2 spades.
N/S have a combined 29 hcp but they stopped
short of game. How could they have gotten to game?
Mark:
Both partners need to be aware of the number of points
required for game, slam or even a relatively safe level of part- score below
game.
Let's look at what North should do after South
responds 1 heart. Ask yourself how many points does the partnership have?
South will have a minimum of 5 or 6 points, but could have many, many more.
North has a wonderful 17, really 18 or 19 opposite 4 or more hearts. Is it
enough for game if South has the absolute minimum? It's close, but
slightly against the odds. Give South the slightest extra point or two and game
is very high probability. The way to let South know that is for North to bid 3
hearts. South would surely accept and go to 4. Some players would go
straight to 4 hearts, but that's a bit aggressive. In any case, bidding
only 2 hearts is a mistake.
Now, to what should South do after North bids 2
hearts. Ask yourself how many points does the partnership have and how many are
needed for game? South has 12 wonderful points, which re- value to 13 or 14
once you learn partner has a heart fit with you. Most players would go straight
to 4 hearts after North bids 2. North has promised between 12 and 15 points.
This adds up to at least 25 points. If South bids only 3 hearts, inviting game
if North has more than a minimum, it's extremely cautious, but it's a clear
mistake to pass.
Ironically, some aggressive bidders might get to
slam. If the hearts break 3-2 (a 67% probability) you can very likely make 6
hearts. N-S are lucky that they beat the score of those who bid slam.
In summary, both partners made mistakes of
undervaluing their hands and failing to add the total points of the
partnerships and bidding accordingly.
Question:
E has opened 1H and partner has responded 2C to indicate 10+
hcp. Would a bid of 2NT by W been a better bid? In NT the hand made 6NT, is
this slam biddable?
I seem to not be
able to convince people they do NOT go to the 2-level with 10 points—6-10 is
considered a minimum hand. You need 11 or more points to bid at the 2-level
either as responder or as overcaller!!
On this hand, 2 ♥️
is the perfect response—it’s always important to show partner
when you have a 6-card Major. With only 5 ♥️, 2NT would be the correct
response.
Question:
N has opened with an undisciplined weak 2S. S has
opening count and 3 spades. What is needed to raise a weak 2 bid to game?
This is a common situation and I recommend this rule highly.
If your partner has opened a weak 2 bid in a major suit, add your high-
card points to the number of cards in the opened suit. If it's less than 16
total, pass; you're done for now. The only exception is this: If you have 4
cards(or more) in the suit and a really weak hand, consider jumping to
game, not in expectation of making it, but as an advance sacrifice, since the
opponents are sure to have a game and possibly a slam.
Now for the rest of THE RULE OF 16: If your
HCP + cards in the suit = 16 or 17, invite game by bidding 3. With 18 to
20 BID GAME NOW. With 21 plus, consider a jump shift to suggest a possible
slam.
In this case, our "rule of 16 points" are
16. I would invite game, bidding 3 spades. How should North act? I would
decline the invitation. The N hand is really minimum for a 1st position weak 2
at unfavorable vulnerability. I wouldn't characterize it as undisciplined, just
quite optimistic. Let's call it "enterprising." The invitation asks:
in the range of possible strengths of the original bid are you at the
upper or lower end. We can all agree it's the lower, hence you pass.
I'm guessing that 10 tricks were made and N-S might
have thought they made a mistake. No, it's the coincidence of the location and
distribution of the E-W cards, combined with the fact that the best defense is
difficult, that might allow N-S to get 10 tricks. An opening club lead or a
club shift after W wins trick 1, will hold the contract to 9 tricks.
Careless play might even result in making only 8 tricks. The east holding makes
it unlikely anyone would lead a club. A heart lead from E makes sure that declarer
will lose only 1 heart. After taking the A of hearts, an expert West would
normally lead a club, so the club losers in the North hand can't all be
discarded on diamonds.
The main tip is to learn the Rule of 16 over
partner's opening weak 2. Another very important tip is that there is
often confusion when one partner opens a weak 2 and responder bids a second
suit. Some players play that a new suit is absolutely forcing and doesn't deny
support in partner's suit. Other players play that a new suit indicates a very
poor fit for opener's suit and no desire to explore a game. Both approaches are
favored by many good players. It's critical that both partners discuss it and
are on the same page. The situation is so common that failing to keep it
straight can cost you many march points or IMPs.
Question:
After partner has supported the opening heart bid, opener is
faced with bidding a jump shift to indicate point or bidding game. What would
you do?
Vic:
Answer: I would bid
game, just as East did.
Ain't bridge a great game?
I think this hand falls under the category of sometime you
should just pass. E responds to partner’s jump-shift by going to game in D.
Goes down 2.
Rich:
Question:
S opens 1C and then supports partner’s 1-H response. Should
N have re-bid H?
Glenna:
Not sure why N would not bid 4 ♥️ instead of jumping to 3 ♣️!!!! N had 10 high card points and 3 points for a stiff ♠️ so 4 ♥️ is a clearcut bid in my
opinion. Basically when you have an opening hand and partner has opened the
bidding, you MUST get the partnership to game.
Question: What is the best lead?
Vic:
Defending against a suit
contract, inexperienced players seem to have an overwhelming compulsion to lead
from doubletons. Because, I suspect, they are imagining voiding themself in
that suit & subsequently scoring a ruff. This is badly flawed logic at
best.
Vic:
I have NS with 31 HCPs. But,
the way the hand was bid neither partner has any reason to believe they
are that strong.
Question: What is South's bid and why should they make that bid?
Mark:
Let's do this a little differently this time. You begin to consider your possible bids and I'll give you a minute or two to do that.
If
you paused for 30 seconds and have a ready answer, you may not have spent
enough time. Let's consider the 1st question of cooperative bidding. Are you
the describer or decider? Hopefully you agree that if West and North made
normal calls for the hands they hold, both are very descriptive. West holds 7
spades, probably headed by the A, likely AJ10.... Partner has short spades,
most likely a singleton, at least 12 high card points, almost certainly 4 or
5hearts. That's the basic, typical hand for North, but there is one other major
possibility. North could have a hand with a long suit, possibly a secondary
suit and a hand too strong for just an overcall. That's unlikely, given the
very big hand you have.
You have to decide. It's your job. You'd love to give
partner a chance to show a stronger than minimum hand that could land a slam,
but West has taken up so much bidding room that you may miss a very good slam.
That's the opponents' job and you should focus on the most likely thing, which
is you almost surely have game and you need to bid it. The obvious bid is 3NT.
You have spades double stopped unless E-W have the perfect defensive holding,
which is W leads the spade jack and E has at least 2 spades and a quick entry
in clubs and you can't take 9 tricks after winning a spade. Even then, you
simply duck the opening spade and E probably doesn't have a third one to lead
after getting the club.
If North makes any move but pass after you bid 3NT,
it shows more than a minimum hand and it's your job, as the decider, to get
your side to slam.
Nothing has been said about vulnerability. If E-W are
vulnerable and you are not, at duplicate you probably need only 500 for a
top or near top. You could consider converting the takeout double to penalty.
Leave that kind of move to the experts when you have 3 trumps. Think about it
more if you have 4 with a high honor. On the other hand, if you are vulnerable
and they are not and you are playing with a sound partner who is watching the
vulnerability and is willing to put you on the 4 level, potentially to be
slaughtered if you have nothing, you should be going to slam, in NT, not a suit
because of the risk of a spade ruff by East.
Whatever you do, DO NOT bid 4 diamonds with your hand
after the double. You are the decider and you are telling partner that you have
a very bad hand with diamonds as your best suit outside of spades. More
likely that not, you will be declarer in a part- score contract when game is
cold and slam is possible. You should not expect partner to read your
mind.
Question: What is South's bid and why should they bid it?
Glenna::
I bid 3 ♦️ because I have 4-card
support, 2 A’s and a small doubleton ♥️! It’s a good bid as partner
has an excellent chance of making 3!