Question: Was North correct to overcall 2NT?
Vic:
Answer: No.
Looking at the North hand, it is obvious what North was trying to tell partner. But 2NT is not the proper way to do so.
If one of my partners made the 2NT call that North did, I would interpret it as an "Unusual NT", promising 5-5 distribution in the two minors & 10+ HCPs.
Why would that be my interpretation? Because that is a common partnership agreement for that 2NT bid. Lacking a pre existing partnership agreement, however, I would have no way to be certain. It would simply be my best guess.
A common agreement for the proper way for North to show that hand would be to overcall 1NT with a Double. Common agreement is that DBL would promise that Overcaller (North) also has a hand that could have opened 1NT & that West stole their bid. Would anyone like to guess how many HCPs East & South are likely to have in that scenario?
This is an example of a scenario that does not come up very often, but that you & partner need to have discussed in advance. Your discussion needs to have included not only how partner can show a matching hand, but also the meaning of any subsequent bids by Responder and/or Advancer.
Defying all probability, North & South seemed to have guessed right about what the other was trying to tell them. They did find a makeable 3S contract. Whodathunkit?
And if North/South were in fact following a pre existing partnership agreement, I would suggest they scrap it ASAP. I see the thread of logic. But it was truly bizarre to have that thread of logic lead to a makeable contract.
Their best contract, by the way, would have been 3NT (game) which also deserves to make.
Ain't bridge a great
game?
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